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Constant capital (and v and s) > 0?

Soviet cogitations: 1
Defected to the U.S.S.R.: 25 Apr 2018, 14:25
New Comrade (Say hi & be nice to me!)
Post 25 Apr 2018, 14:41
Dear comrades, I am reading The Capital and I am at the end of volume II at present.
When Marx discusses issues where mathematical aspects emerge, I have always made the assumption that the constant capital, the variable capital and the surplus value that are found in the value of a good are strictly positive, greater than 0.
In fact, if the variable capital v were 0, the mode of production under which the good were produced would not be capitalistic, but one of forced, completely unpaid labour.
If the surplus value s were 0, there would be no capitalist exploiting other people's labour.
If c, the constant capital, were 0, that would mean that the means of production transfer no value into the value of the produced good. But that would be possible only if the means of productions* used to produce the good had no value, and, if they had no value, anybody could get them for free and no exploitation on the basis of the ownership of the means of production of that good would exist. Therefore the mode of production of that good would not be capitalistic.
Am I right?
Thank you for your answers!
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